"Let p be a prime, and let K be the field of order p. A function f from Km into K is called a generalized bent function if there exists a non trivial additive character of K such that for any a in Km. In the binary case p=2, there are bent functions if and only if m is even. In that case, a Boolean bent function has degree at most and is at maximal distance from the space of affine functions. The goal of my talk is to compare the bent functions ( p=2) and the generalized bent functions (p>2). Namely, we will see that there are generalised bent functions for any m, and that the degree of a generalized bent function can be upperbounded like in the binary case. Surprisingly, for a given m the distance between the space of affine functions and a generalized bent function is not constant, leading to the question : are the generalized bent functions really bent ?"
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What the heck does this mean? Have you become an ALIEN?
http://www.myfonts.com/WhatTheFont/forum/viewthread.php?duplicate=1&threadid=45501
"Let p be a prime, and let K be the field of order p. A function f from Km into K is called a generalized bent function if there exists a non trivial additive character of K such that for any a in Km. In the binary case p=2, there are bent functions if and only if m is even. In that case, a Boolean bent function has degree at most and is at maximal distance from the space of affine functions.
The goal of my talk is to compare the bent functions ( p=2) and the generalized bent functions (p>2). Namely, we will see that there are generalised bent functions for any m, and that the degree of a generalized bent function can be upperbounded like in the binary case. Surprisingly, for a given m the distance between the space of affine functions and a generalized bent function is not constant, leading to the question : are the generalized bent functions really bent ?"
....yeah, *really* 'bent'.
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